Jun. 28th, 2006

fenicedautun: (Default)
I've been thinking for a while about adding a question of the day to my lj every weekday I'm at work (as I don't tend to get on the computer when not), but I've procrastinated because I didn't know if anybody would want to answer. But then I decided I didn't care and I'd post anyways. For this particular question, if you want to post to your LJ, I'd love you forever as I REALLY want an answer that makes sense.

Before 1600, music was composed using the modal scales. After 1610, pretty much all music was composed in tonal scales (I believe the crossover was between 1603 and 1611, but please correct me if I'm wrong). Obviously, musicians were working continuously through this period, and switching from modal to tonal is relatively difficult, as it's all about what sounds "right". Given this, who invented the tonal system? Why did it gain such widespread and quick acceptance? Were there any contributing factors (political/economic/etc) that helped with this quick acceptance?

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fenicedautun

December 2016

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